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APMG-International AgilePM-Foundation (Agile Project Management (AgilePM) Foundation) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification that is designed to equip project management professionals with the skills and knowledge required to effectively manage agile projects. Agile Project Management (AgilePM) Foundation Exam certification is ideal for individuals who are looking to advance their careers in the project management field and want to enhance their understanding of agile methodologies.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following is an important way a change manager supports sponsors in their role?
- A. Gain the commitment of other executive leaders.
- B. Prepare the change vision for them.
- C. Protect them from the demands of line leaders.
- D. Offer them feedback and coaching.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Feedback and Coaching: Sponsors play a critical role in change, and change managers support them by providing feedback and coaching to help them lead effectively. This builds their confidence and ensures alignment with the change vision.
* Other Options:
* A: Sponsors should prepare the vision themselves.
* B: Sponsors themselves lead commitment-building efforts.
* D: Protecting sponsors isn't an effective strategy; engaging them is key.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Sponsor Engagement: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.2.
NEW QUESTION # 16
To show the change is on track, Change Managers must define and agree on a set of measures that reflect the desired outcomes. What are these often called?
- A. Transition tranches.
- B. Incremental milestones.
- C. Islands of stability.
- D. Key performance indicators.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Key Performance Indicators (KPIs): KPIs are agreed-upon metrics that measure progress against desired outcomes. These indicators are crucial for tracking the effectiveness of change efforts.
* Other Options:
* A: Islands of stability refer to elements unaffected by change.
* C: Incremental milestones are checkpoints but not specific measures of outcomes.
* D: Transition tranches are phases of change implementation.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Outcome Measurement: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 7, Section 7.5.
NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following statements about the technical Coordinator role is true?
The technical Coordination provides the same function from a technical perspective as the Business Ambassador does from a business perspective.
The technical Coordinator is responsible for ensuring that the solution confirm to the requested technical standards.
- A. Neither 1 or 2 is true
- B. Both 1 and 2 are true
- C. Only 2 is true
- D. Only 1 is true
Answer: B
Explanation:
Both statements about the Technical Coordinator role in AgilePM are true. The Technical Coordinator provides the same function from a technical perspective as the Business Ambassador does from a business perspective, ensuring that the technical aspects of the project align with the overall business objectives.
Additionally, the Technical Coordinator is responsible for ensuring that the solution conforms to the requested technical standards, overseeing the technical integrity and quality of the product throughout the development process.
References:
* DSDM Agile Project Framework Handbook
* "Agile Architecture: Strategies for Scaling Agile Development" by James O. Coplien and Gertrud Bjernvig
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which should always be the first step in the Continuous Change Management Cycle?
- A. Prioritization.
- B. Action.
- C. Discovery.
- D. Ideas.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Discovery: The Continuous Change Management Cycle starts with understanding the current situation, challenges, and opportunities. Discovery ensures that subsequent steps are informed and targeted.
* Other Options:
* A: Ideas come after discovery.
* B: Prioritization occurs after potential solutions are identified.
* D: Action follows the planning and prioritization phases.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Continuous Change Management Cycle: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.6.
NEW QUESTION # 19
When is a Product Backlog Item considered 'ready' to be brought into a Sprint?
- A. It is selected by Developers during a Sprint Planning event
- B. It is documented as a User Story on a physical card
- C. It has been added to the Product Backlog prioritized list
- D. It is small enough to become 'done' within a given timeframe
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Scrum, a Product Backlog Item (PBI) is considered "ready" when it is sufficiently understood, appropriately sized, and clear enough that the Developers believe they can complete it within a single Sprint. PBIs that meet this threshold are suitable for selection during Sprint Planning because they have enough clarity of value, acceptance criteria, and implementation approach to be forecast as "Done" by the end of the Sprint. Readiness is typically achieved through ongoing Product Backlog refinement, where the Product Owner and Developers collaborate to add detail, order, and size. The key test is not whether an item appears on the backlog, is captured as a user story, or is merely chosen in the meeting; rather, it is whether the item is small and transparent enough to be completed within the Sprint's timebox and to meet the Definition of Done. Therefore, option B best reflects the standard: a PBI is ready when it is small enough-and clear enough-to be completed ("Done") within one Sprint.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following statements are true?
* The 'change curve' describes a normal human reaction to change.
* The 'change curve' only applies to changes that are perceived as negative.
- A. Only 2 is true.
- B. Only 1 is true.
- C. Both 1 and 2 are true.
- D. Neither 1 nor 2 is true.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Statement 1: Correct. The change curve describes typical emotional responses to change, including denial, resistance, exploration, and commitment.
* Statement 2: Incorrect. The change curve applies to both positive and negative changes, as it reflects the adjustment process regardless of the perceived nature of the change.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Emotional Responses to Change: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.3.
NEW QUESTION # 21
What DSDM product reflects the approach to the management of the project as a whole and considers, from a management perspective, how the project will be organized and planned?
- A. Delivery Plan
- B. Terms of Reference
- C. Foundation Summary
- D. Management Approach Definition
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following statements about Scrum Theory is true?
Scrum employs an iterative approach (correcting the typo "interactive" to "iterative" as requested) Decisions should be based on evidence
- A. Neither 1 or 2 is true
- B. Both 1 and 2 are true
- C. Only 2 is true
- D. Only 1 is true
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (concise, policy-compliant):
Scrum rests on empiricism and lean thinking. Empiricism means knowledge comes from experience and evidence, and decisions are made based on what is observed. Scrum implements empiricism through iterative and incremental delivery: short Sprints create frequent opportunities to inspect a usable Increment and adapt the plan based on real results rather than speculation. Iteration reduces risk by enabling rapid learning, early validation of assumptions, and continuous refinement of the Product Backlog. Evidence-based decision-making is reinforced by transparent artifacts (Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog, Increment), a clear Definition of Done, and regular inspection points (Daily Scrum, Sprint Review, Sprint Retrospective). Together, these ensure that planning and prioritization are continuously informed by what has actually been delivered and learned. Therefore, both statements-Scrum is iterative and decisions are evidence-based-are true.
NEW QUESTION # 23
In which step of the Continuous Change Management Cycle should change actions be broken into smaller tasks?
- A. Prioritization.
- B. Discovery.
- C. Action.
- D. Ideas.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Action Phase: Breaking change actions into smaller, manageable tasks happens during the Action step, where detailed plans are implemented. This ensures smoother execution and tracking of progress.
* Other Options:
* Discovery: Focuses on understanding the current situation.
* Ideas: Involves generating potential solutions.
* Prioritization: Helps decide which tasks or changes to focus on.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Continuous Change Management Cycle: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.6.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the common Agile concepts, behaviors, and techniques delivers a version of a product with just enough features to be usable by early customers who can then provide feedback for future product development?
- A. Empowerment.
- B. Minimum viable product.
- C. Full transparency.
- D. Self-organized teams.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Minimum Viable Product (MVP): An MVP allows early customers to use a product and provide valuable feedback, which is then incorporated into subsequent iterations. This is central to Agile practices, emphasizing incremental delivery and responsiveness to user needs.
* Other Options:
* B: Full transparency relates to visibility into processes and progress, not product development.
* C and D: These refer to team dynamics, not product delivery.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Incremental Delivery: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 3, Section 3.7.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is NOT a Project role?
- A. Project Manager
- B. Solution Developer
- C. Business Visionary
- D. Solution Architect
Answer: D
Explanation:
AgilePM (based on DSDM) defines a clear set of project and solution delivery roles. At the project level: Business Sponsor (investment owner), Business Visionary (custodian of the business vision), and Project Manager (overall project management and governance). Within the Solution Development Team: Team Leader, Business Ambassador, Business Analyst, Solution Developer, Solution Tester, and technical governance via the Technical Coordinator role. Notably, AgilePM uses the title Technical Coordinator rather than "Solution Architect." Although many organizations informally use "solution architect," it is not an AgilePM role name; its responsibilities most closely map to the Technical Coordinator, who ensures technical coherence, manages technical risks, and upholds non-functional requirements and architectural guidelines. Therefore, among the options given, Solution Architect is the one that is not an AgilePM-defined project role, whereas Business Visionary, Project Manager, and Solution Developer are explicitly recognized roles in the AgilePM framework.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which is a factor used in the 'change formula' (Beckhard and Harris)?
- A. The quality of the leadership.
- B. Elapsed time it will take to achieve the change.
- C. Expected return on investment and benefits.
- D. Level of dissatisfaction with the status quo.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Dissatisfaction with the Status Quo: The change formula includes dissatisfaction as a key driver for change. Without sufficient dissatisfaction, the motivation to change is diminished.
* Other Options:
* B, C, and D: These factors, while important, are not explicitly part of the Beckhard and Harris change formula.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Change Formula Framework: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.5.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following are values in the Agile Manifesto?
Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
Responding to change over following a plan (correcting "Responsible to change") Customer collaboration over contract negotiation Comprehensive documentation over working solutions
- A. 1, 3, 4
- B. 2, 3, 4
- C. 1, 2, 3
- D. 1, 2, 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed 150-300 words Explanation (paraphrased from Agile Manifesto & AgilePM alignment):
The Agile Manifesto states four value pairings that guide agile delivery. Three relevant to this question are: "Individuals and interactions over processes and tools," "Customer collaboration over contract negotiation," and "Responding to change over following a plan." These emphasize people-centric collaboration, close partnership with customers, and adaptability through iterative inspection and adaptation. The fourth statement in the options is incorrect: the Manifesto values "working software over comprehensive documentation," not the reverse. AgilePM aligns with these values by encouraging active business involvement, timeboxing, incremental delivery, and MoSCoW prioritization-mechanisms that maximize collaboration, transparency, and the ability to change course based on real feedback. Documentation, plans, and contracts still exist but are framed to enable collaboration and change rather than constrain them. Therefore, the correct set of values among the options is 1, 2, and 3, making A correct.
NEW QUESTION # 28
What role normally facilitates the Daily Stand.up?
- A. Team Leader
- B. Technical Advisor
- C. Project manager
- D. Business Advisor
Answer: A
Explanation:
The role that normally facilitates the Daily Stand-up in AgilePM is the Team Leader5. The Team Leader ensures that the meeting is focused on progress toward the iteration goal and facilitates effective decision-making during the stand-up.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which information is given in the Solution Architecture Definition?
- A. The strategy for testing
- B. A high-level design framework for the solution.
- C. A snapshot of the evolving business, solution and management products
- D. The tools and standards to be used in Evolutionary Development
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Solution Architecture Definition is an evolutionary product that provides a high-level design framework for the solution2. It is intended to cover both business and technical aspects of the solution to a level of detail that makes the scope of the solution clear but does not constrain evolutionary development2. This ensures that the solution architecture supports the business direction and the solution under development will be fit for its intended purpose3
NEW QUESTION # 30
When assessing the impact and severity of options on how to handle change, not all costs are financial. What type of cost is reflected in the downtime experienced while staff are trained to use a new process or system?
- A. Opportunity.
- B. Productivity dip.
- C. Safety & Wellbeing.
- D. Reputational.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Productivity Dip: A temporary drop in productivity is common when employees are being trained on new processes or systems. This cost is critical to account for in planning and managing change effectively.
* Other Options:
* Safety & Wellbeing: Relates to physical and emotional health, not productivity.
* Reputational: Refers to external perception of the organization.
* Opportunity: Refers to lost potential from alternative courses of action.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Assessing Change Impact: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 7, Section 7.3.
NEW QUESTION # 31
When using the Iterative Development technique, which of the following should each cycle include?
1. Though
2. Action
3. Control
4. Conversation
- A. 1, 3, 4
- B. 2, 3, 4
- C. 1, 2, 3
- D. 1, 2, 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
When using the Iterative Development technique, each cycle should include Thought, Action, and Control. These components ensure that the development process is systematic and reflective. Thought involves planning and considering the next steps, Action is the implementation of those plans, and Control is the evaluation and adjustment based on feedback and results. This iterative cycle helps in refining the product incrementally and ensures continuous improvement.
Reference:
AgilePM Foundation Handbook
"The Art of Agile Development" by James Shore and Shane Warden
NEW QUESTION # 32
How does DSDM differ from most other Agile approaches?
- A. It focuses on the entire project lifecycle
- B. It focuses on the development of products
- C. It focuses on the collaborative working of teams
- D. It focuses on the delivery of products
Answer: A
Explanation:
DSDM differs from most other Agile approaches because it focuses on the entire project lifecycle456. This includes pre-project, feasibility, foundations, development, and deployment phases, ensuring a comprehensive approach to project management.
NEW QUESTION # 33
In the Process for Leading Change (Kotter), which of the 8 processes (or accelerators) aims to reduce the impact of doubters by demonstrating early achievements against the vision?
- A. Creating a sense of urgency around a single big opportunity.
- B. Building and maintaining a guiding coalition.
- C. Celebrating visible, significant short-term wins.
- D. Accelerating movement towards the vision.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Celebrating Short-Term Wins: Demonstrating early achievements builds confidence and reduces resistance by showing tangible progress. This is a key step in Kotter's model for leading change.
* Other Options:
* A: Building a coalition involves leadership but not reducing doubt.
* B: Creating urgency addresses the need for change, not achievements.
* C: Accelerating movement focuses on overall momentum.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Kotter's Change Model: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.2.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following statements, about ways in which we communicate and connect with people, are true?
* Non-verbal communication can be written.
* Our actions can speak volumes without saying a word.
- A. Only 1 is true.
- B. Only 2 is true.
- C. Both 1 and 2 are true.
- D. Neither 1 nor 2 is true.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Statement 1: Incorrect. Non-verbal communication refers to gestures, facial expressions, and body language, which cannot be captured in written form.
* Statement 2: Correct. Actions, such as behavior during change or leading by example, can convey powerful messages without verbal communication.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Non-Verbal Communication in Engagement: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.
NEW QUESTION # 35
In which of the following circumstances should processes and tools be prioritized over individuals and interactions?
- A. None of the above
- B. Requirement to create and approve documentation
- C. Contractual obligations
- D. Need to demonstrate formal control over processes
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Agile Manifesto explicitly values "individuals and interactions over processes and tools." AgilePM fully aligns with this principle. While processes, tools, documentation, and contracts are important and often necessary (especially for governance, compliance, and clarity), they should not take precedence over effective collaboration, empowered teams, and rapid feedback. AgilePM's practices-facilitated workshops, daily coordination, frequent reviews, and active business involvement-are designed to maximize human interaction to reduce waste, accelerate understanding, and improve quality. Even in regulated or contractual contexts, AgilePM recommends shaping processes and agreements to enable collaboration (e.g., clear roles, decision latency reduction, acceptance criteria, and incremental validation) rather than letting procedures dominate. Therefore, no listed circumstance justifies prioritizing processes and tools over individuals and interactions. The right choice is D. None of the above.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which plain defined by DSDM, has a planning horizon that includes the end of a project?
- A. Delivery
- B. Timebox
- C. Detailed
- D. High-Level
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Delivery Plan defined by DSDM has a planning horizon that includes the end of the project7. This plan looks towards the future, often months or years ahead, to guide the incremental delivery of the project's outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 37
According to the 'change formula' (Beckhard and Harris), which response will increase an individual's
'dissatisfaction with the status quo'?
- A. Focus on the benefits of the change.
- B. Communicate the danger of inaction.
- C. Clarify the steps users need to take.
- D. Amend performance targets during the change.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Communicating the Danger of Inaction: Highlighting risks of not changing amplifies dissatisfaction with the status quo, creating urgency and driving motivation for change.
* Other Options:
* A: Performance targets align with accountability, not dissatisfaction.
* C: Clarifying steps supports action but doesn't address dissatisfaction.
* D: Benefits focus on the positive outcome, not dissatisfaction.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Change Formula Framework: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.5.
NEW QUESTION # 38
How is Quality ensured during Evolutionary Development?
- A. By facilitating session to enable a group to work to achieve an agreed goal
- B. By continuous verification
- C. By understanding and managing priorities
- D. By managing objectives in a fixed time period
Answer: B
Explanation:
Quality during Evolutionary Development is ensured by continuous verification2. This involves iterative development, where all development processes, including testing, are repeated to ensure the output is complete and able to generate useful feedback2.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which statement about change is correct for DSDM?
- A. Avoid change whenever possible
- B. Change is inevitable and males estimating very difficult
- C. Project operate with a changing world
- D. Change is a symptom of an inability to define requirements properly
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 40
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