Authentic CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Dumps PDF - 2023 Updated
Get Prepared for Your CAS-004 Exam With Actual 472 Questions
To take the CASP+ exam, candidates must have a minimum of ten years of experience in IT administration, with at least five years of hands-on technical security experience. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification exam is intended for professionals who are responsible for creating and implementing cybersecurity solutions in their organizations.
Preparing for the CompTIA CAS-004 exam requires a significant amount of study and practice. Candidates are advised to use a variety of study materials, including textbooks, online courses, and practice exams. They should also gain hands-on experience in configuring and implementing security solutions in real-world environments. By passing the CompTIA CAS-004 exam, candidates can demonstrate their advanced skills and knowledge in cybersecurity, increase their career opportunities, and contribute to the protection of organizations against cyber threats.
What is the Need for CompTIA CAS-004 Exam
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) certification is designed to teach you the most advanced, in-demand skills required to work as a security practitioner. It's also the only exam which focuses on securing desktop and mobile devices, as well as the data they contain. You'll learn how to identify the most common vulnerabilities in user systems and how to test and patch those vulnerabilities before hackers do. This is the first step toward becoming a Certified CompTIA CAS-004. It is a knowledge-based exam that focuses on critical areas of information security. The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner exam is designed to validate a person's ability to configure and administer security policies on a stand-alone computer system or network. This means the person must be able to identify, analyze, and correct problems associated with security breaches. The candidate must also have the skills necessary to maintain the security of a stand-alone or networked computer system or data communication facility.
NEW QUESTION # 164
A vulnerability assessment endpoint generated a report of the latest findings. A security analyst needs to review the report and create a priority list of items that must be addressed. Which of the following should the analyst use to create the list quickly?
- A. OVAL
- B. CVSS scores
- C. Business impact rating
- D. CVE dates
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 165
Prior to a risk assessment inspection, the Chief Information Officer tasked the systems administrator with analyzing and reporting any configuration issues on the information systems, and then verifying existing security settings. Which of the following would be BEST to use?
- A. XCCDF
- B. SCAP
- C. CVSS
- D. CMDB
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 166
A security architect needs to implement a CASB solution for an organization with a highly distributed remote workforce. One Of the requirements for the implementation includes the capability to discover SaaS applications and block access to those that are unapproved or identified as risky. Which of the following would BEST achieve this objective?
- A. Implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic to enforce DI-P and encryption policies.
- B. Deploy endpoint agents that monitor local web traffic and control access according to centralized policy.
- C. Deploy endpoint agents that monitor local web traffic to enforce DLP and encryption policies.
- D. Implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic and control access according to centralized policy.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 167
A security analyst detected a malicious PowerShell attack on a single server. The malware used the Invoke-Expression function to execute an external malicious script. The security analyst scanned the disk with an antivirus application and did not find any IOCs. The security analyst now needs to deploy a protection solution against this type of malware.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of malware the solution should protect against?
- A. Rootkit
- B. Fileless
- C. Logic bomb
- D. Worm
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fileless malware is a type of malicious activity that uses native, legitimate tools built into a system to execute a cyber attack.
NEW QUESTION # 168
A company's SOC has received threat intelligence about an active campaign utilizing a specific vulnerability. The company would like to determine whether it is vulnerable to this active campaign.
Which of the following should the company use to make this determination?
- A. A system penetration test
- B. Log analysis within the SIEM tool
- C. The Cyber Kill Chain
- D. Threat hunting
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 169
An organization developed a social media application that is used by customers in multiple remote geographic locations around the world. The organization's headquarters and only datacenter are located in New York City.
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to ensure the following requirements are met for the social media application:
Low latency for all mobile users to improve the users' experience
SSL offloading to improve web server performance
Protection against DoS and DDoS attacks
High availability
Which of the following should the organization implement to BEST ensure all requirements are met?
- A. Dual gigabit-speed Internet connections with managed DDoS prevention
- B. A load-balanced group of reverse proxy servers with SSL acceleration
- C. A CDN with the origin set to its datacenter
- D. A cache server farm in its datacenter
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 170
A security analyst is reading the results of a successful exploit that was recently conducted by third-party penetration testers. The testers reverse engineered a privileged executable. In the report, the planning and execution of the exploit is detailed using logs and outputs from the test However, the attack vector of the exploit is missing, making it harder to recommend remediation's. Given the following output:
The penetration testers MOST likely took advantage of:
- A. A buffer overflow vulnerability
- B. A TOC/TOU vulnerability
- C. A plain-text password disclosure
- D. An integer overflow vulnerability
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following is the MOST important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages that tell an ICS how much electrical power to output?
- A. Importing the availability of messages
- B. Assuring the integrity of messages
- C. Enforcing protocol conformance for messages
- D. Ensuring non-repudiation of messages
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages for an Industrial Control System (ICS) is to assure the integrity of messages. Ensuring the integrity of control messages is critical for the safe and reliable operation of the system, as any tampering or alteration of the messages could have serious consequences, including equipment damage and physical harm to people.
NEW QUESTION # 172
Leveraging cryptographic solutions to protect data that is in use ensures the data is encrypted:
- A. when it is passed across a local network.
- B. when it is written to a system's solid-state drive.
- C. by an enterprise hardware security module.
- D. in memory during processing
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 173
A security engineer estimates the company's popular web application experiences 100 attempted breaches per day. In the past four years, the company's data has been breached two times.
Which of the following should the engineer report as the ARO for successful breaches?
- A. 0.5
- B. 36,500
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: A
Explanation:
To calculate the ARO for successful breaches, the security engineer should divide the number of successful breaches (2) by the number of years that the data has been breached (4), and then multiply the result by the number of days in a year (365). This would give the following equation:
ARO = (2 / 4) * 365 = 0.005
Therefore, the ARO for successful breaches is 0.005, or approximately 0.5% per year.
NEW QUESTION # 174
As part of the asset management life cycle, a company engages a certified equipment disposal vendor to appropriately recycle and destroy company assets that are no longer in use. As part of the company's vendor due diligence, which of the following would be MOST important to obtain from the vendor?
- A. A copy of the vendor's information security policies.
- B. A copy of the current audit reports and certifications held by the vendor.
- C. A signed NDA that covers all the data contained on the corporate systems.
- D. A copy of the procedures used to demonstrate compliance with certification requirements.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 175
A networking team was asked to provide secure remote access to all company employees. The team decided to use client-to-site VPN as a solution. During a discussion, the Chief Information Security Officer raised a security concern and asked the networking team to route the Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Doing this would prevent remote users from accessing the Internet through their local networks while connected to the VPN.
Which of the following solutions does this describe?
- A. Split tunneling
- B. SSH tunneling
- C. Asymmetric routing
- D. Full tunneling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Full Tunneling is the solution that routes all Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Asymmetric routing is the technique of sending different types of traffic (such as voice and data) over different paths. SSH tunneling is a secure way to access a remote system by encrypting the traffic between the client and the server. Split tunneling is the process of allowing traffic to go to certain destinations without being routed through the VPN.
NEW QUESTION # 176
A company undergoing digital transformation is reviewing the resiliency of a CSP and is concerned about meeting SLA requirements in the event of a CSP incident.
Which of the following would be BEST to proceed with the transformation?
- A. An active-active solution within the same tenant
- B. An on-premises solution as a backup
- C. A multicloud provider solution
- D. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 177
A security architect is designing a solution for a new customer who requires significant security capabilities in its environment. The customer has provided the architect with the following set of requirements:
* Capable of early detection of advanced persistent threats.
* Must be transparent to users and cause no performance degradation.
+ Allow integration with production and development networks seamlessly.
+ Enable the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques.
Which of the following technologies BEST meets the customer's requirements for security capabilities? A.
- A. Sandbox detonation
- B. Deception software
- C. Centralized logging
- D. Threat Intelligence
Answer: B
Explanation:
Deception software is a technology that creates realistic but fake assets (such as servers, applications, data, etc.) that mimic the real environment and lure attackers into interacting with them. By doing so, deception software can help detect advanced persistent threats (APTs) that may otherwise evade traditional security tools
12. Deception software can also provide valuable insights into the attacker's tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) by capturing their actions and behaviors on the decoys Deception software can meet the customer's requirements for security capabilities because:
It is capable of early detection of APTs by creating attractive targets for them and alerting security teams when they are engaged12.
It is transparent to users and causes no performance degradation because it does not interfere with legitimate traffic or resources13.
It allows integration with production and development networks seamlessly because it can create decoys that match the network topology and configuration It enables the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques because it can record and analyze the attacker's activities on the decoys13.
NEW QUESTION # 178
A company is migrating from company-owned phones to a BYOD strategy for mobile devices.
The pilot program will start with the executive management team and be rolled out to the rest of the staff in phases. The company's Chief Financial Officer loses a phone multiple times a year.
Which of the following will MOST likely secure the data on the lost device?
- A. Set up different profiles based on the person's risk.
- B. Require MFA to access company applications.
- C. Remotely wipe the device.
- D. Require a VPN to be active to access company data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
We have to remember that MFA will not prevent someone from accessing the data unless the device is encrypted. So to best way to protect it would be to perform a remote wipe when reported stolen.
NEW QUESTION # 179
A remote user reports the inability to authenticate to the VPN concentrator.
During troubleshooting, a security administrate captures an attempted authentication and discovers the following being presented by the user's VPN client:
Which of the following BEST describes the reason the user is unable to connect to the VPN service?
- A. The user's certificate has been compromised and should be revoked.
- B. The user's certificate was created using insecure encryption algorithms
- C. The user's certificate is not signed by the VPN service provider
- D. The user's certificate was not created for VPN use
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 180
A product manager at a new company needs to ensure the development team produces high- quality code on time. The manager has decided to implement an agile development approach instead of waterfall. Which of the following are reasons to choose an agile development approach? (Choose two.)
- A. Budgeting and creating a timeline for the entire project is often more straightforward using an agile approach rather than waterfall.
- B. The product manager would like to produce code in linear phases.
- C. An agile approach incorporates greater application security in the development process than a waterfall approach does.
- D. The scope of work is expected to evolve during the lifetime of project development.
- E. The product manager gives the developers more autonomy to write quality code prior to deployment.
- F. The product manager prefers to have code iteratively tested throughout development.
Answer: D,F
NEW QUESTION # 181
A company processes data subject to NDAs with partners that define the processing and storage constraints for the covered dat
a. The agreements currently do not permit moving the covered data to the cloud, and the company would like to renegotiate the terms of the agreements.
Which of the following would MOST likely help the company gain consensus to move the data to the cloud?
- A. Purchasing managed FIM services to alert on detected modifications to covered data
- B. Emulating OS and hardware architectures to blur operations from CSP view
- C. Implementing redundant stores and services across diverse CSPs for high availability
- D. Designing data protection schemes to mitigate the risk of loss due to multitenancy
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 182
Which of the following is required for an organization to meet the ISO 27018 standard?
- A. COBIT equivalent standards must be met
- B. All Pll must be encrypted.
- C. All network traffic must be inspected.
- D. GDPR equivalent standards must be met
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 183
A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.
The technician will define this threat as:
- A. an advanced persistent threat.
- B. a zero-day attack.
- C. an on-path attack.
- D. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question doesn't describe a DROWN, Zero-Day or on-path attack. The malicious actor was persistent over time (three months) and exfiltrated the data it needed. Then stopped once its objective was met.
NEW QUESTION # 184
A security analyst needs to recommend a remediation to the following threat:
Which of the following actions should the security analyst propose to prevent this successful exploitation?
- A. Update the antivirus.
- B. Install a host-based firewall.
- C. Patch the system.
- D. Enable TLS 1.2.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 185
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